law.onecle.com
First seen Feb 24, 2026
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Getting stiffed on my deposit, going to the JP tomorrow. Can you give me some advice r/legaladvice? (X-post from r/houston) So as best I can tell, my landlord withheld the last tenants deposit; The property management company had the good sense to give it to him when he become irate in their office. Lucky for all parties (and unbeknownst to me) my deposit was in the landlords account and was forked over. Fast forward a year and when it's time to collect my deposit the landlord says the property management company did not give them my deposit (because they gave it away). Now normally this wouldn't be a problem as a new tenant would now be handing over his deposit to start the cycle anew, however, the landlord has decided to sell the house and sever ties with the management company. So the owner is saying the company is liable because "they said so" and the company is saying the owner is liable because of [Texas Property Code § 92.109](http://law.onecle.com/texas/property/92.109.00.html) I'm not asking who's in the right, in a way I'm leaving that up to the judge. I just want to know if I can add both of them as defendants. Since I have a feeling getting only one of them in a court room would just have us going in circles like I have been for the last few weeks. I'm not sure if this would cause any issues or if the Judge would throw out the case. Thanks Guys
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